The Areopagus Script: Another View of Miracles and 1Cor. 13

Sunday, October 08, 2006

Another View of Miracles and 1Cor. 13

Let’s open our minds and Bibles. I know that miracles have ceased, and in this article will do my best to prove it logically. I will first CORRECTLY define a miracle. A miracle is anything that God does that man cannot do AND is instantaneous. Many people will be healed in our time, and doctors (who, by the way, don’t know everything) will not know why. The point still remains that the person will heal slowly and gradually, and may still have serious problems for the rest of there, potentially short, life. I will use 1Cor. 13 for my simple, yet effective argument on why miracles have ceased. Some people speak of the “perfect” in 1Cor. 13 being heaven and they seem to know for a FACT that it is not the complete canonized scriptures. Well, it is. Most people who want to hold on to miracles will say that the “perfect” is Jesus or heaven, so that the miracles they want to happen will stay with them. There is more than one problem with this, but there is only one that I will, and need, to use. If, hypothetically speaking, the word “perfect” was referring to heaven, then it’s pronoun (perfect) would, by the koine Greek rules, have to agree with whatever word to which it was making reference. In other words, if the word “perfect” was speaking of heaven it would have to be in the masculine gender, because heaven is always masculine. That’s not what it used though. For these people to be correct in their argument, then the word perfect would have to be “ho teleios” (masculine form) rather than what it does say: “to teleion” (neuter). There’s that. Then they say, “Well, if it (perfect) is the Bible then that means that Paul never had complete knowledge!” What’s so hard to believe about that? Jesus didn’t even know everything (Mr. 13:32)! In a sense though, we know “everything” as far as what we need. Peter said this in 2Pt. 1:3 when he said “all things”. So, when the Bible was complete, miracles had already ceased (one, because it IS implied that the apostles had to lay their hands on someone for them to receive the ability to do miracles, and then those people couldn’t pass the power on. Read Acts 8 sometime), and if they hadn’t ceased then, then they did when the Bible was finished because the things written in it are all that we need to believe. Notice that I never once said in this perfectly logical article that God has ceased to work. He still works in our lives, but in this day and age, He does not do it through the miraculous.

5 Comments:

Anonymous Anonymous said...

BREATH is a miracle! God performed a miracle just now when i breathed!

8:14 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

I agree with this definition of miracles, that they have ceased and that God's purpose for them has ended. However, I do not think that I Cor 13 can be used to link the ending of miracles with the completion of the canonized scriptures. I have several reasons for my thinking, several of which the previously written article "Have Miracles Ceased?" has already outlined.

Before I attempt to expound on any additional reasons, I have a question for you. You state (correctly) that the neuter "to teleion" cannot be referring directly to heaven (ouranos) because Greek syntax would require a masculine article & adjective. However, in your post, I fail to see where you identify what specific Greek word "to teleion" does refer to instead. If it is indeed the "canonized scripture", then which Greek word(s) would a mid-1st century Corinthian recognize as that which you purport and also fit the singular/neuter criteria?

Here are some descriptions that I found Paul used that do not fit: In reading Paul's letter to Timothy, he uses 3 synonyms for the written word in 2 Tim 3:15,16 and 4:2 (Gk: grammata, graphee and logon {logos}). These are neuter, feminine and masculine. In 3:16, "hiera grammata" is neuter - literally, sacred letters. However, this is a plural word and thus does not fit the "to teleion" criteria either, it would require "ta teleia".

Warning: I am not a Greek scholar although I play one on-line at times :) -- Please feel free to point out any errors or false assumptions I may have made. I do not profess to have "complete knowledge" and I have no problem believing that Peter didn't either albeit he undoubtedly had a more complete knowledge than mine.

12:31 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

Oops. I meant Paul not Peter in that last line (but would be true for either).

1:08 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

So Steve, have you pulled "Farther Along" from your hymnals?

Farther along we'll know all about it.
Farther along we'll understand why.

8:15 AM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

Who is "Mr. 13:32" anyway?

10:59 AM  

Post a Comment

<< Home

Rules from the Areopagites